4A051 CDC Understanding and Retention Evaluation (URE) Practice Exam

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• The three types of line of duty determinations are informal, formal, and
• Which branch is not involved in the Integrated DES?
• What level of organization usually has between 1,000 to 5,000 personnel?
• Which statement best describes the utility of the terminal digit filing approach?
• Which action should be taken before registering a new patient to avoid duplication in CHCS?
• MEDEVAC is typically associated with which type of aircraft?
• What funding structure, mandated by the defense health agency, must MTF commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders review and manage?
• When utilizing resource support, who may request a task order for personnel, equipment, maintenance, and supplies?
• The exocrine glands make chemicals that perform specific jobs in the area where they are released. Major exocrine products include the digestive juices, mucus, sweat and which?
• Which color on a military map is used to depict relief features such as elevation?
• Which is an example of non-verbal communication? (alternative wording)
• A patient requiring the use of restraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all times should be classified as
• Which statement best describes a key characteristic of prime vendors?
• Which of the following is included in the admissions and dispositions record to reflect all relevant events?
• Which form serves as the Medical Record—Narrative Summary?
• Which designation describes a form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, base or wing?
• Category one designates positions that are in direct support of the President of the United States and are filled on what basis?
• What is not a more common Air Force achievement awards?
• According to the descriptions, the dermis
• Arteries carry blood
• Which category of personnel is trained to augment dwindling active duty manpower under Total Air Force objectives?
• During the initial distribution phase of funding, which office disperses funds to the medical treatment facilities?
• The anatomical term "peripheral" refers to something
• What does PRP stand for?
• LOE not mandatory for an active duty A1C with how many months TAFMS?
• Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement?
• The medical control center is also known as which of the following?
• Medical personnel must comply with several acts, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Which of the following is the correct full title for a privacy-related act listed?
• Block 38 on AF Form 560 is used to identify which information?
• Who appoints an officer to serve as the Patient Squadron commander?
• Which form is not one of the substantiating documents used with the BAS program?
• What type treatment facility model is the most common in the Air Force?
• Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?
• AF Form 788 filing criterion relies on which identifier?
• Which program aggregates data and measures daily transmission and completeness from source data collection systems?
• Which statement about data-driven decisions is true?
• Which day, in another wording, are monthly promotion increments posted after AFPC transactions?
• What document is a by-name roster reflecting authorized positions, position numbers, AFSC, and FAC?
• Which award is given specifically to numbered units for meritorious service or outstanding achievements?
• Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient?
• In practical terms, prime vendors are expected to deliver supplies within how many hours?
• Which document should be reviewed to confirm that a change has taken effect after submission?
• The best reason to use data to aid in the decision making process is because it
• Which system is used for entering, tracking, resolving and reporting on pay and personnel related cases?
• When possible, what is the best way to transfer PHI for routine disclosure of information to insurance companies, attorneys or other legitimate users?
• Which group is trained to augment or offset dwindling active duty manpower in support of the Total Air Force and national objectives?
• What does the acronym SNIAC stand for?
• In filing, how are fetal monitor strips filed relative to inpatient records?
• Who requests an individual to be reinstated or requalified from permanent decertification/disqualification in PRP?
• What is the lean organizational principle primarily focused on?
• All codes in the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification are:
• Which program is intended to mitigate effects on deployments on healthcare access, quality, and scope?
• What C-level states the unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?
• Red blood cells are also known as
• Which is not an example of a data driven decision?
• Which of the following is not one of the three basic elements of the TOC?
• In the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system, the originating physician's responsibility for a patient ends when
• What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)?
• Who prepares AF form 788 (series) folders for filing inpatient documentation?
• What is the best choice for ensuring that accountable containers remain in a controlled environment?
• When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?
• All of the following are authorized litters for aeromedical evacuation, except the
• For which of the following would you not create an inpatient record?
• The designee status applications are generally submitted through which office to HQ USAF/SGMA?
• What is the term used when the amount available for obligation is a negative number?
• AF Form 3066 is used to document which item?
• The dimensions of stowed baggage for aeromedical evacuation patients must not exceed
• In-processing a beneficiary includes which of the following?
• An individual's medical record information is not released to medical records or scientific organizations when
• After you sign the inventory listing, who signs the certification statements signifying that the appointment is accurate?
• On the Training Overview Page, which action updates an individual's training information?
• How often is the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) presented to Congress?
• When must the cost center managers have in order to operate their cost center?
• In the National Defense Authorization Act, how often will the subtitles and sections change?
• Under the stripes for exceptional performers program (STEP) program, no airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except
• Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband's medical record information to an insurance company?
• The following medical conditions may qualify patients for Medicare before 65 years old, except:
• What is an on-going process that enables senior leadership to evaluate other ways to achieve the best mix of force, requirements, and support within fiscal constraints?
• Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, FOIA, HIPAA, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and which other amendments?
• Which term means "toward the outside of the body"?
• In the weighted airman promotion system (WAPS), time in grade (TIG) is computed at the rate of
• On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the
• Allocation notices are generated through which system?
• Which label is used to stamp medical records pertaining to medical affirmative claims?
• Who oversees the mission operation of the installation?
• Routine care is usually not provided to patients with questionable eligibility until the
• Which vessel carries blood away from the heart?
• Who is the evaluation forwarded to upon completion?
• Which policy dictates the discharge clearance process for patients at a military treatment facility?
• What code set describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to communicate uniform information?
• Which of the following is a trigger event for DES, except one?
• If the Staff Judge Advocate determines an administrative line of duty is more appropriate after AF Form 348 has been completed, to which office is the AF Form 348 returned through MPF/DFMPEP?
• What level usually has between 500 to 2,000 personnel?
• Which of the following is not a listed AE patient category?
• Who performs periodic reviews of MTF/VA facility resource sharing agreements to ensure VA facilities are network providers?
• Who's responsibility is it to ensure the DD Form 602 includes all essential patient information?
• What does PRP stand for?
• When must the attending physician accomplish the medical history and physical examination?
• Arhtr(o) is the root word meaning
• The place where bones meet is a
• Who determines if an injury is actually a medical affirmative claims case?
• What is a responsibility of the Physical Evaluation Board liaison Officer (PEBLO)?
• Where can you go to get standardized and current marketing materials for TRICARE?
• Which inpatient record form is used to transmit the physician's instructions to the nursing staff?
• What is the correct approach to handling an 'old' PDI during PRP evaluation?
• What is one of the most important aspects of in processing?
• The Veterans Tracking Application is hosted on which portal?
• What is the AF Form 250 used for?
• Which structure is primarily used for gas exchange in respiration?
• ART stands for what?
• Where is the MRT label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?
• Which award is abbreviated as AFOR?
• When unit personnel are processed through the personnel deployment function (PDF), who is responsible for their accountability?
• In CHCS, the system supports tracking patient care and which other category?
• What triage category would include injuries that need immediate medical or surgical attention to save a life?
• At minimum, who attends the deployment order briefing?
• Which form documents the PDI on the PRP questionnaire?
• Death on arrival describes a patient who dies at which point?
• Which term describes the cells that carry oxygen throughout the body?
• Nonmilitary patients who leave the hospital without authorization are?
• When is food completely digested?
• Which role has primary responsibility for privacy and release of information functions in an organization?
• Which code set is described as communicating uniform information about medical, surgical, and diagnostic services?
• A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level. Which combination of TIG and TAFMS is correct?
• What should you first consider when helping a patient narrow down the right TRICARE plan for them?
• Which statement about a hospital-level MTF description is accurate?
• Which information system application is the Air Force Medical Service intranet site?
• DD Form 2138 is used for which purpose?
• For permanent retirement consideration, the disability must be what?
• The MEPRS information is routinely channeled to which person or agency?
• Which method is preferred for routine PHI disclosure to a lawyer?
• Why is it important to check the Mission Document for the flight?
• Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits?
• In MRDSS, what tool is designed to manage the AFMS readiness resources?
• What classification is given to non-medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) System?
• Which classification describes a patient who is able to walk and travel without a litter?
• Which DAWG disposition represents a temporary disability retirement?
• Emergency leave is described as which of the following?
• Which statement is not a responsibility for the Debt Collection Assistance Officer (DCAO)?
• Once AFPC/DPANM reviews an initial RILO, how do they notify the physical evaluation board liaison officer (PEBLO) of the determination?
• Which automated self-inspection tool is used by AFMS MTFs?
• What is the purpose of the link between CHCS and DEERS?
• Which system is the official AFMS readiness system for expeditionary staffing records?
• On a military map, what color illustrates the relief features, such as the vertical elevation of the terrain on a map as seen from above?
• Who is financially accountable for care regardless of where it is delivered?
• Which entity owns outpatient records?
• Where are copies of inpatient care documents filed within AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient?
• Which of the following is not a consideration for hardship voluntary separation?
• Who appoints the trusted agents for issuing and ensuring member notification to provide a urine sample?
• Which system consolidates a facility's expense, workload, and personnel data into a single report?
• To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System?
• Which system is used in acute hospital environments to capture point-of-care data at the bedside from physiological devices?
• Outpatient records are the property of the
• Both a notification and a PDI letter are required when the patient is
• Who appoints the medical treatment facility (MTF) Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)/Presidential Support Program (PSP) monitor
• A form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM is classified as which category?
• Which statement is not a function of the BCAC?
• A situation describing an erroneous certification occurs when the gaining unit did not initiate a new AF Form 286 after a PCA.
• A CHCS admission notification letter is generated each time which type of patient is admitted to the MTF?
• Which document requires signatures from board members and the approval authority during the MEB process?
• Airmen are not eligible for disability for all of the following reasons, except which one?
• MSgt eligibility after becoming a 7 level, which TIG and TAFMS values are correct?
• In order to effectively support the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), when do functional areas revalidate the tempo band alignment of their respective capability areas and realign forces, if necessary?
• All of the lymph flows into either the thoracic duct or which structure?
• What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?
• The Composite Health Care System (CHCS) allows MTF personnel to track patient care and
• Which FMP prefix is assigned to a new spouse after a sponsor's divorce and remarriage?
• Which type of MTF can have from two to six squadrons?
• Use the interward transfer function in CHCS to
• Who appoints medical evaluation board (MEB) members, and by what means are they tasked?
• What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a certified Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) transfer to non-PRP?
• Personnel information file (PIF) contents are available to everyone except which entity?
• Which statement describes the delivery timeframe commonly associated with prime vendors?
• The sponsoring unit can authorize lodging allowance up to what percent of the local lodging per diem rate for conferences?
• The Veterans Tracking Application is which of the following?
• Who can be a voting member on the MEB?
• A patient who is alive when he or she reaches the hospital, but dies prior to admission is considered
• Which CHCS element must be created first to configure a provider's scheduling in CHCS, before templates and schedules are created?
• For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the
• Which system is used to generate allocation notices for deployments?
• What patient movement requirement center (PMRC) is located at Scott Air Force Base (AFB)?
• Which level below the Wing is a group?
• Who ultimately receives MEPRS information at the DoD level?
• What is the abbreviation for "twice a night"?
• The intent of what form is to provide sufficient information for contracting to issue a contract and for the financial service office (FSO) to set aside funds for the requirement?
• The name of the attending physician entered on the AF Form 3899 is the
• Before the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES) process existed, how long would the average medical evaluation board (MEB) take from case initiation to Veteran's Administration (VA) rating?
• Who is responsible for assessing the 'mission ready' status of their unit, assigned unit type codes (UTC), and assigned personnel?
• BDQAS is a program used to measure daily data transmission and completion from source data collection systems. Which option below best matches this description?
• Which system consolidates a military treatment facility's expense, workload, and personnel data into a single report?
• How many permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members?
• Which is an example of non-verbal communication?
• Which agency uses LOD determinations to evaluate eligibility for compensation for injuries sustained while training for AFROTC?
• What percentage range best represents the portion of the budget at a military treatment facility allocated for personnel salaries?
• You suspend a member from the PRP when reliability is
• The alert notification and recall system used through the Air Force is referred to as which kind of system?
• Who is responsible for reviewing back order lists, evaluating stock supply levels, and inventorying all equipment within their responsibility?
• What is established to collect operating expenses when two or more work centers share physical space, personnel, and supplies?
• When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the
• Which CHCS option would you choose to modify the number of available slots for a provider on a given day?
• What represents orders, contracts or agreements (negotiated), and obligations of funds?
• What does CHCS stand for?
• For how many years must inventories be kept in the equipment custodian folder?
• Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?
• When can patient's request for a renewal of their Secretary of the Air Force designee status?
• The four major interrelated systems affecting the development of joint operational plans include the National Security Council System;
• Who may authorize a patient disposition?
• The primary USAF aircrafts supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation are all of the following, except the
• Which entry format is correct for a patient's name during CHCS Registration?
• Resource sharing is based on the assumption that costs will be offset by decreased which costs?
• When advising a patient on TRICARE plan options, the first factor to assess is the plan's suitability based on what?
• Which report gives a detailed view of expenses processed through the EAS?
• Which rank is the STEP exception that allows promotion more than once in 12 months?
• Who is in the best position to see how funds are being expended in their responsibility center?
• What is the step after creating an outline?
• If for some reason the sponsor's medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a
• What assignment limitation code (ALC) is for members who should no be deployed or assigned away from specialty medical capability required to manage their unique medical condition?
• In which situation would a letter of evaluation (LOE) not be mandatory?
• Which priority corresponds to Routine evacuation?
• Which update frequency is a minimum requirement for ART?
• A member may be permanently retired when the member has
• SORTS stands for what?
• Which number is blocked on the right-hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987-65-4321?
• What is the key to the success of TRICARE?
• Which organization maintains various checklists relating to inspectable areas?
• After the evaluee has been informed of the MEB findings, how many days does the member have to request an impartial review?
• What is awarded only to numbered organizations that perform meritorious service or outstanding achievements that clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units?
• What form is used to initiate a medical affirmative claims case by the staff judge advocate?
• What level of ongoing support is described for the Wounded Warrior Program?
• Which flight handles administrative needs for the medical squadron? (alternative wording)
• Which part of the deployment folder is for MAJCOM/installation/wing/unit requirements?
• What is the first step to take in DMHRSI when inprocessing a member?
• In the AE process, which organization assigns a cite number to the regulating request?
• The Self-Determination Act forms are filed in which section of the outpatient health record?
• For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility accept administrative responsibility?
• Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) typically is associated with what type of aircraft?
• Which combination lists internal memory components?
• Which organizational unit is headed by an officer or supervisor who is responsible for management or resources in the unit and, in most instances, can significantly influence the expenses incurred by the unit?
• When a patient is in remain overnight (RON) status, on which form should the evaluation, treatment and medication be documented?
• Which flight takes care of the manpower and budget for the medical squadron?
• Block 33 on AF Form 560 records which data?
• AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet does all of the following, except
• Permanent decertification is not required when a member
• What does not occur during end of year close out?
• AF Form 1488 is used for which purpose?
• Who pays for claims for network care by military treatment facility (MTF) enrolled patients?
• Within the Unit Manpower Document, which code identifies a specific work center controlled by HQ USAF?
• Who has review and approval authority over the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report?
• Which entity is responsible for periodic reviews to ensure resource-sharing compatibility with VA facilities as network providers?
• After a breach investigation is complete, who will assess the results of the risk assessment and recommendations in determining whether affected individuals should be notified of the breach?
• What is defined as termination of active duty status and transfer or reversion to a reserve component not on active duty, including transfer to the individual ready reserve (IRR)?
• Which two options formed part of the original three TRICARE plan options?
• What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?
• During the initial distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for dispersing funds to the MTFs?
• Which document is used to communicate a PDI decision to the member and unit?
• Which statement most accurately describes a defining feature of prime vendors?
• Level 1 HCPCS are commonly referred to as
• What is not possible for P&A staff in the BLSDM system?
• Into which office is the AF Form 577 turned when a patient's clearance is complete?
• A Secretary of the Air Force designee letter must contain the effective date, period covered and
• Of the reports listed below, what is not a TRICARE Operations Center Report?
• When a health care provider decides to report a patient in casualty status, the appropriate entry is made on which form?
• What is the fluid that bathes and nourishes the cells of the body tissue called?
• In a military hospital, which role may authorize a patient disposition?
• Before giving the potentially disqualifying information (PDI) letter to the CMA, what should you do?
• Which individual is also a focal point that Theater Patient Movement Requirements Centers (TPMRC) personnel can contact for questions concerning a patient's movement?
• A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on SF 502, Medical Record—Narrative Summary, for
• Which system would you use to generate reports on demand or on a monthly basis?
• If there is PDI of a medical nature on the PRP questionnaire, where must this be documented?
• About how many bones does an adult have?
• What is the standard form used to document the Medical Board findings?
• Where can you go to get standardized and current marketing materials for TRICARE?
• What is a responsibility of the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) clerk?
• The main part of the digestive system is the
• Which type of tissue covers the body surface and forms the skin?
• What serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting a patient?
• Which flight takes care of the manpower and budget for the medical squadron? (alternative wording)
• Which form is not included among BAS substantiating documents?
• Locating and clearing discrepancies between the resource advisor's record and the official accounting records occurs during the triannual review of the
• Which muscle is primarily responsible for breathing by changing thoracic volume?
• Which form is not one of the substantiating documents used with the BAS program?
• Which policy dictates the discharge clearance process for patients at a military treatment facility?
• The interim line of duty (LOD) for reserve members is valid for no more than how many days?
• Who from the following list is not required to attend the deployment availability working group (DAWG)?
• What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your MTF?
• When may the military branch pay for the travel of the patient's next of kin (NOK)?
• Generally, how are the applications for designee status submitted?
• Which form is not part of the BAS substantiating documents?
• About how many times does the heart beat a minute on average throughout a person's lifetime?
• Which system provides bedside, point-of-care data capture for physiological devices in acute hospital environments?
• How many distinct support tiers are used in the help desk environment?
• Which authority issues the appointing orders for MEB members?
• Which of the following is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?
• Which of the following is NOT a major exocrine product?
• Temporary decertification from a Personnel Reliability Program is used when reliability is in question and the problem is expected to be of what duration?
• The statutory obligation of an individual to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property arising from his or her negligence is defined as what?
• What is the most important customer service skill?
• Which patient would still receive routine medical care, even if they failed a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS) eligibility check?
• Which of the following is NOT a primary intratheater AE aircraft?
• Which AE phase provides airlift for patients between points of treatment outside the combat zone, within a theater of operations?
• Who must approve user accounts before the MRDSS Help Desk creates accounts?
• What action does the individual initiate if there is an unjust or unfair practice/procedure?
• Which scenario demonstrates administrative responsibility being accepted by the Air Force commander at the nearest MTF?
• What opens into the top of the uterus?
• When a patient's condition is so severe that there is imminent danger to life, which patient category is reported?
• What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated within 24 hours?
• What does MRTR2 stand for?
• What two convenient tools can you find on TRICARE.mil?
• A MAJCOM or FOA issues what type of forms for use within the organization and subordinate organizations?
• Which aeromedical evacuation phase handles inter-theater movement within a theater, moving between treatment points outside the combat zone?
• In aeromedical evacuation terminology, what does RON stand for?
• The first hospital established by Congress was founded in which year?
• Which triage category indicates injuries that require immediate attention?
• An AF Form 469 and AF Form 422 are good for a maximum of how many days?
• What does PMRC stand for in the context of patient movement?
• What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of one hour?
• Which term best matches the scenario of leaving active duty and moving to a reserve component?
• Where is allergy information located on the health record jacket?
• When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?
• Which DoD automated system is used for patient registration, appointment scheduling, and patient scheduling?
• Which system's objective is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution process?
• The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of
• What is the typical response time for trouble/work orders when the escalation level is elevated?
• What is the purpose of the AF Form 286 in PRP management?
• Smooth muscle are found in most of the body's
• DOC stands for what phrase?
• When was the medical squadron model implemented?
• An Airman should be referred to the deployment availability working group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days?
• Which office specifies the annual review frequency for ALC-C codes?
• What is the final step of completing the quarters notification form?
• Which branches are involved in the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (DES)?
• Positions to which individuals are assigned duties on a permanent or full-time basis in direct support of the President of the United States are called
• Which form is not among the BAS substantiating documents?
• Who develops and assigns a unit task code (UTC) according to the DoD?
• All of the following items need to be prepared for the aeromedical evacuation flight, except which item?
• Which gland is the 'master gland'?
• What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a certified control?
• What two purposes does the user record serve?
• Which ordering describes the correct CHCS schedule setup process for a new provider: profile, template, then schedule?
• What is not necessarily a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation?
• Which type of publication is a nondirective publication?
• Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband's medical record information to an insurance company?
• Which option is not among the five organizational principles?
• Which system produces various standard reports and supports on-demand, nightly, weekly, or monthly report runs?
• What shows the customer how you interpreted the problem and gives them a chance to clear up any confusion so you can take proper action?
• Which AE phase provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield and between battlefield and subsequent treatment within the combat zone?
• Which statement best describes why temporary decertification may be used rather than permanent decertification?
• What is the tactical use of aircraft or forces in a desired area of operation, and is the actual use of forces within a combat zone or an objective area?
• Which form is not used as a BAS substantiating document?
• Which statement is not a DCAO responsibility?
• Which department level requires all active duty personnel have to attend in and out processing programs?
• On a military map, what color represents main roads, built-up areas, and special features?
• Which information systems application serves as the Air Force Medical Service intranet site?
• What method is used to track when patients are away from the ward?
• MRDSS stands for which system?
• Sensory neurons carry informations
• How should entries in the medical record pertaining to medical affirmative claims cases be stamped?
• After the risk assessment, what determines if a patient with questionable eligibility is treated in the military treatment facility?
• Permanent decertification is documented on which form?
• Who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of line of duty findings?
• Which macromolecule carries instructions that tell each cell how to perform their particular jobs?
• What are examples of non-sensitive PII?
• Which of the following is NOT considered part of the lymphatic system in a certain region?
• What cannot be a subdivision of a wing?
• Which term describes the obligation to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property due to negligence?
• Which DAWG disposition terminates the process without disability retirement?
• AF Form 618 is associated with which process?
• If hours need to be changed after a project is closed, whom does the MEPRS program manager contact?
• In which section of AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient, is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement filed?
• Which document is used for interdepartmental purchase requests?
• Who is responsible for assessing the DQMC program and developing the annual statement of assurance for health affairs?
• In ICD-9-CM, a code beginning with the letter 'E' means?
• Which term describes releasing protected health information to an authorized user?
• Which organization pays for network care by MTF enrolled patients?
• Time card approvers must approve or reject time cards no later than what deadline after the time card period ends?
• What automated self-inspection tool is used by AFMS MTFs?
• Recommended convalescent leave must be approved by which person?
• PEBLO duties: Which statement describes one of the PEBLO duties?
• RCC and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least 180 days.
• AF Form 286A is used to document what PRP action?
• Who is responsible for preparing AF form 788 series folders for filing inpatient documentation?
• A properly developed and maintained terminal digit filing system makes it easier to
• What is the maximum amount of time a member is authorized to be on a Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL)?
• Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to evaluate the eligibility of an Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training?
• The end item of medical equipment with a unit cost between 3,300 and 250,000 and a minimum five-year life is classified as which category?
• Which form is not among the BAS substantiating documents?
• What is the term for a request to increase the UMD authorization that must be accompanied by a proposal for offsetting reductions from elsewhere?
• What does TMIP-J stand for?
• When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the non-recommendation, inclusive dates of the non-recommendation action, and
• What is HIPAA’s training requirement?
• Which glands control body functions by producing hormones?
• Which DoD standard automated system is used for patient registration, appointment, and scheduling?
• Which CHCS component is a pattern of timeslots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date?
• Who is responsible for maintaining the necessary patient valuables records and protecting the security of the valuables accepted for safekeeping?
• When patients are admitted from the clinic, who completes the circled items of AF Form 560?
• Which report provides a detailed picture of the expenses processed through EAS?
• If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the health or safety of the individual, which is an appropriate course of action?
• The schedule hold duration parameter defines how much time will elapse before
• The objective of the medical affirmative claims program is to assist which party in recovering the cost of medical care caused by a third party?
• What is the first step in completing a checklist?
• Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?
• What is the Air Force's war planning system?
• What is the proper sequence for setting up a provider's schedule in CHCS?
• In the context of designee status for an abused family member, who has approval authority after sponsor discharge?
• Which of the following is not a valid input for CHCS help access?
• When a military patient is admitted to an MTF, the patient's unit commander should be notified by
• When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military members retired?
• What order is issued by a competent authority for reimbursement of expenses incident to official travel?
• Patient's requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as
• Prime vendors are civilian companies contracted by which agency?
• If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse's family member prefix (FMP) will be
• Block 40 on AF Form 560 contains which type of information?
• The end item of medical equipment that has a unit cost of between $3,300 and $250,000, a life expectancy of at least 5 years, and maintains its identity during use is classified as
• After completing the inventory listing, which role signs the certification statements to confirm accuracy?
• How are fetal monitor strips filed?
• Who is primarily responsible for managing MEPRS within the military treatment facility (MTF)?
• What is not an action a PAC worksheet can communicate to the CSS?
• What does the acronym DES stand for?
• Which listing identifies the manpower tasked to deploy in support of specific unit task codes (UTCs)?
• What action do you take when an incorrect payment is received from an insurance company for copies of medical records?
• Each kidney contains about a million microscopic filtering units called?
• What is the three-tier rating system in the ART?
• What term describes a unit's resource management authority that can significantly influence expenses?
• Subcutaneous tissue
• What is the primary purpose of the Veterans Tracking Application?
• When using the check-in record option in CHCS, what information is recorded?
• Who is responsible for appointing the MTF PRP/PSP monitor?
• Which form is titled 'Request for Purchase' and used to initiate procurements in the Air Force?
• Who can authorize a military treatment facility to conduct a medical evaluation board on an assigned enlisted staff member who has been a disciplinary problem?
• In ICD-9-CM, a code starting with the letter E indicates which of the following?
• Which office reviews the initial RILO in the DES process?
• PMRC stands for which of the following?
• What is the enlisted performance reports (EPR) conversion factor?
• What information system does Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world?
• Who performs a quality review before CMA review?
• An enlisted performance report (EPR) will have at least how many evaluators?
• What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a re-evaluate for temporary duty (TDY)?
• Recovery care coordinator (RCC) and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to seriously wounded, ill, or injured service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least how many days?
• When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to an MTF?
• Which agency handles LOD determinations for disability retirement?
• Which form documents the dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?
• Which of the following is not a minimum requirement to update ART?
• Motor-neurons carry information in which direction?
• Which below does not constitute potentially disqualifying information (PDI)?
• What does PPBE stand for in the planning and budgeting context?
• What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?
• What should outpatient records personnel do with medical paperwork missing the required minimum identification documentation?
• Patient register numbers are assigned in numerical sequence until which event occurs?
• Digestion begins in the
• Whose policy requires you to consider if resource-sharing agreements are in the government’s best interest and support the regional health care plan?
• What is the timeframe of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle?
• If direct disclosure could harm the patient, to whom may the information be released according to policy?
• Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) notify for remedial actions when unit task codes (UTC) cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment?
• How many years do category Ill codes remain in the CPT Manual?
• What is an authorized disposition the deployment availability working group (DAWG) can make?
• How often are active duty records inventoried?
• The prefix meaning "within" is which?
• Which role is essential to attend the deployment order briefing at minimum?
• Deserter status can be assigned if a member is absent for less than 30 days and
• Who can be voting member(s) on the medical evaluation board?
• In the WAPS, what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?
• Which type of condition is not eligible for referral to the DES?
• What mini-registration task requires the user to possess a Fileman access code?
• What are the three key elements in selecting the appropriate complexity of the E&M codes?
• What is the primary purpose of a release certificate, which is signed by the patient when he or she desires to be released from the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system of his or her own free will?
• Final progress notes on SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except
• PRP suspension can initially be made for up to 30 days and can be extended to a maximum of 120 days.
• Which lodging percentage can be authorized by the sponsoring unit for conferences?
• Who will notify you of special administrative requirements your patients may require for the flight?
• Individuals who have been designated the authority to order, receive and sign for equipment material in writing by the medical group commander are
• Which step is not part of in-processing a beneficiary?
• Inhaling and exhaling result mainly from contractions of the
• Who appoints the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) clerk and the Physical Evaluation Board liaison Officer (PEBLO), and by what means is the PEBLO tasked?
• What four-digit code identifies a particular work center within HQ USAF control on the Unit Manpower Document?
• What does CHCS stand for in medical records context?
• Which principle focuses on rapid decision-making with flat structures and no intermediate levels?
• According to the descriptions, subcutaneous tissue forms which layer of the skin?
• What best describes the duration of one Air and Space Expeditionary Force life cycle?
• An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is
• A medical board can be convened to determine an individual's mental competence for pay and records purposes when the member
• An air ambulance (AA) is typically conserved for what priority patient?
• What is involved at every echelon in the administration of an appropriation warrant?
• Which abbreviation is used for both ears?
• Once the change request has been submitted, what do you check to ensure the change has been made?
• If a budget shows negative funds available for obligation, which outcome occurs?
• Verbal or telephone orders may be taken by which person?
• Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a medical evaluation board?
• Which form is used to notify third-party liability for medical care?
• Who is the non-clinical benefits advisor to the member while going through the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES)?
• Which type of publication is an example of a nondirective publication?
• When is involuntary discharge not mandatory?
• After you finish reviewing a record for PDI, what is the next step?
• AWOL is assigned when a member has an unauthorized absence exceeding how long?
• Which office is the 'one stop shop' where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by their PCM?
• Which statement describes the effect of signing the release certificate?
• Which of the following is not part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment coordination (SNIAC) process?
• The baggage dimension maximum for aeromedical evacuation is which of the following?
• Although assignment limitation codes (ALC)-C are valid indefinitely, how often should the codes be reviewed?
• Which statement best describes the endocrine system?
• Which document is used to indicate the sponsor's record is not present at out-processing?
• What is the appropriate response when calling another office?
• Who assigns the unit's missions and goals in DRRS?
• Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 of AF Form 560 (Current Organization)?
• Which item does not belong on the in-processing checklist?
• DRRS stands for what?
• Which option is not a type of military treatment facility (MTF)?
• Which section of AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient, are living wills (Self-Determination Act forms) filed?
• Which act is primarily concerned with protecting health information privacy?
• The admissions and dispositions report provides a daily record of which items?
• Which flight takes care of all the administrative needs for the medical squadron?
• What is the primary role of the Beneficiary Counseling Assistance Coordinator (BCAC)?
• The official program that summarizes the secretary of defense approved plans and programs for the DOD is called
• During the editing process, addressing phrases such as: final completion, month of August, or close proximity, is an example of
• When must the military treatment facility release a deceased patient's remains to mortuary personnel?
• For an Air Force member with a single inpatient episode in late December and an inpatient records library, retirement would be eligible on which date?
• Which of the following is not commonly listed as an Air Force achievement award?
• If you notice that a patient valuables have been lost, who do you have to immediately notify?
• Which type describes a report of an Airman's injury or illness that describes specific activities or functions to avoid to allow recovery or reduce risk of further injury?
• On AF Form 2100, where is the medical records tracking label placed to ensure proper tracking?
• MFEL stands for what?
• Adren(o) is the root word meaning
• A CHCS admission notification letter is generated each time
• Which statement about prime vendors is true?
• Which act is listed alongside Privacy Act and Freedom of Information Act as a health information compliance requirement?
• Which duty is a primary responsibility of the MEB clerk?
• AF Form 1403 is used for which purpose?
• If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, who is responsible for changing the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?
• Which term describes the main digestive tract from mouth to anus?
• Which term means "outward from the center of the body"?
• Information that may affect a patient's morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered
• Who approves the activation or inactivation of a designated aeromedical staging facility (ASF) or the partial curtailment of the mission assigned to an ASF?
• Which factor determines whether a questionable-eligibility patient is treated at a military treatment facility?
• Which roster shows authorized positions, including position numbers, AFSC, and FAC?
• A category I discrepancy is classified as
• When the providing care manager reviews the compensation and pension (C&P) results, and does not note any inconsistencies, what should the PCM do?
• Who is authorized to appoint trusted agents to coordinate urine sample collection within a unit?
• The suffix "-penia" indicates what concept?
• Approximately how many nephrons are in each kidney?
• Temporary decertification can be extended in 30-day increments to a maximum of 365 days after initially being made for up to 270 days.
• Which document identifies procedures for expeditionary missions and emergency response missions as per DOC and CEMP?
• TRAC2ES stands for which of the following?
• Monthly promotion increments are posted on or about which day of the month after AFPC transactions?
• What does CHCS stand for?
• Who is eligible to initiate a decoration recommendation?
• Air passes through the nose, then, in sequence, it passes through the
• Which form is the Patient Evacuation Tag?
• Which statement about Air Force military treatment facility models is accurate?
• Which entity is typically above a Wing in the Air Force hierarchy?
• Where is allergy information displayed on a patient's health record?
• Skeletal muscles are sometimes called
• The anatomical term "external" refers to something
• Which report contains total expenses, performance factor workloads, and cost per performance factor amounts at the FCC code level?
• The AF Form 788 (series), Inpatient Record, is filed using which filing system?
• Who would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?
• CHCS reports designed for a specific purpose by military treatment facility personnel are called
• Who has overall authority and responsibility for conducting all incident activities including development of strategies and distribution of resources at the incident site?
• Which office is described as the 'one stop shop' for processing specialty referrals requested by the PCM?
• Which NDAA-related statement is accurate?
• What is the second step if you have identified suspicious mail?
• What is the primary role of the BCAC?
• Which statement best defines prime vendors?
• To monitor patient absences, use?
• The prefix meaning "within" is
• Which CHCS option makes it simple for the user to add, delete, and cancel schedule timeslots for specific days within any provider's schedule?
• In a grid coordinate like 4.1/G.6, the 4 indicates which grid element?
• Which features are depicted in red on most military maps?
• Which capability is not available in the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J)?
• Within an MTF, which unit is primarily responsible for MEPRS data management?
• Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?
• Which organization originates the monthly promotion increment flow?
• When was the medical squadron model implemented? (alternative wording)
• Which is not a requirement for a Presidential Support Program (PSP) nomination?
• Which item listed below is not part of the anti-hijacking search?
• What is the response time for trouble/work orders when the level is elevated?
• What year did Congress establish the first hospital?
• Which tissue is described as providing extra fuel for the body?
• Which of the following is not an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?
• Which body is typically responsible for overseeing incident operations during an incident on the installation?
• In the 10th Revision, Clinical Modification, ICD-10-CM codes are what type of characters?
• What is emergency leave?
• What is the abbreviation for "both ears"?
• Units must update the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) monthly, no later than what day of the month?
• What is the maximum duration of a PRP suspension?
• The minimum identification required on inpatient forms includes the patient's name, family member prefix, sponsor's social security number, register number, and which of the following?
• The suffix "-penia" means
• If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is?
• What does the ICAO code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600 represent?
• Which document lists the DoD plans for future years?
• What does LOD stand for in this context?
• Within the MTF, who is the functional champion of TRICARE online (TOL)?
• Which gland is referred to as the 'master gland'?
• How long or when does the Wounded Warrior Program work with the service member and the medical team to develop a comprehensive recovery plan?
• What plan is the medical unit commander's plan, establishing procedures for the unit's expeditionary missions identified in the designed operational capability (DOC) statement and emergency response missions identified in the Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP)?
• Permanently changing assignment to another squadron without the gaining unit initiating a new AF Form 286 is called?
• What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command?
• The following are all types of servers except which?
• What time frame should an event log cover?
• What is the official website for TRICARE?
• Which option expresses the relationship between prime vendors and the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)?
• Which body system breaks down food into nutrients that can be used as fuel?
• Which organizational principle focuses on accomplishing wartime tasks without reorganizing?
• Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?
• What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing records retirement?
• What is the most important customer service skill? (alternative wording)
• Which party is notified via the admission notification letter when a military patient is admitted to an MTF?
• Who designated the military training facility (MTF) to conduct a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) on a general officer?
• What AFMS objective focuses on appropriate utilization of people and resources applied through effective management?
• Which form initiates a purchase and allows contracting to issue a contract and the financial service office to set aside funds for the requirement?
• TRICARE originally referred to the three main plan options, which were TRICARE Prime, and TRICARE Extra.
• Which inpatient record form is used to convey a physician's instructions to nurses?
• If a sponsor with two children (ages 5 and 8) marries an individual with one child (age 10), the step child's family member prefix (FMP) will be
• An inventory of patient valuables is conducted
• If the impartial reviewer finds that the review does not support the medical evaluation board (MEB) findings, the reviewer should contact the
• Who may request a task order for resources in the context of resource support?